Rajasthan 41000 Teacher Jobs in Panchayati Raj Dept 2012 - Rajasthan 3rd Grade Teacher Vacancies www.exam.rajpanchayat.gov.in

Panchayat Raj Department Of Rajasthan Government has released jobs notification for recruiting the posts of 3rd Grade Teachers Jobs in Zilla Parisad and District Wise. Total Number of Jobs 41000. Details of Posts, Qualification, Selection Procedure, Application Fee and Application Online Submission details mentioned below. Last Date for Submitting Online Applications: 02-04-2012

Rajasthan Panchayat Raj Jobs Vacancies Details
Total Number of Jobs: 41000
Name of Post: Teachers

How to apply
Interested and Eligible candidates should be submitted applications Online only through official website of http://www.exam.rajpanchayat.gov.in . Candidates are advised to study advertisement/user guide before online submission. After Submitting application take print out of system generated application form.
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Important Dates
Starting (beginning) for Online Registration of Application: 02-03-2012
Last Date for Online Registration: 02-04-2012

Note: More details like Educational Qualifications, Application Fee, Age Limit and other important details will be published on www.govtjobsdaily.com whenever official advertisement released


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www.trb.tn.nic.in 2895 PGA PED Teachers Recruitment 2012- Tamil Nadu Teachers Recruitment Board Vacanices

Tamil Nadu Teacher Recruitment Board has released jobs notification and invites applications for recruiting the posts of Post Graduate Assistants/Physical Education Educators. Total Number of Posts 2895. Details of Posts, Number of Vacancies and Application Submission details mentioned below. Last Date for Submitting Applications: 30-03-2012

Tamil Nadu Teacher Recruitment Board Vacancies Details
Name of Post: Post Graduate Assistants/Physical Education Directors Gr-I ,
Total Number of Jobs: 2895
Educational Qualifications
        Candidates should have passed MA/MSc/MCom in the relevant subject with BEd. For the posts of Physcail Education Directors Grade-I candidates should have any Bachelor Degree with MPEd Degree. All Degrees should be recognized by UGC/NCTE. Candidates should have knowledge of Tamil of 10th standard level.
           Candidates who have equivalent qualification those candidates have to produce the letter of equivalence issued y the competent committee as per GO Ms No.441, P&AR(R) Department.

Age Limit
Candidates age not more than 57 years as on 01-07-2012 for above posts

How can get Application Form
Candidates can get application from (OMR Format) by paying Rs.50 cash from the Office of the the Chief Educational Office, of all 32 Districts in Tamil Nadu between 16-03-2012 to 30-03-2012
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Application Fee
General and OBC category candidates have to pay Rs.500 application fee and SC/ST/PWD category candidates Rs.250 to be paid in the form of Challan in any branch of State Bank of India. Prescribed challan should contain correct details bank charges, application and account number, candidates have to write branch name and its code number

How to apply
Interested and Eligible candidates may apply in the prescribed format, application form can get as explained above. Properly filled applications along with copies of certificates, application challan fee to be sent
Office of the Chief Educational Officer concerned

Important Dates
Start of Applications Sale: 16-03-2012
Last Date for Submitting Application: 30-03-2012
Date of Written Examination: 27-05-2012

For more particulars regarding Educational Eligibility, Number of Vacancies, Scale of Pay, Selection Procedure, General Instructions, Application fee paying and submitting procedure details given below link.

Click here for Tamil Nadu PGA & PED Jobs Notification

Note: Candidates should submit the Application forms at any CEO’s office only. Don’t send the forms to TRB.



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Kerala PSC Exam Previous Question Papers

Kerala PSC Mining and Geology Department Assistant Geologist Posts Exam Paper 2009

1. Erosional ridges characteristic of terrains having gently dipping sedimentary rocks are called:
(A)Hog's back ridges (B) Mesas (C) Buttes (D) Cuestas

2. Drainage pattern characteristic of braided rivers:
(A) Dichotomous (B) Anastomosing (C) Parallel (D) Trellis

3. The removal of rock debris by wind action is called:
(A) Abrasion (B) Saltation (C) Attrition D) Ablation

4. The velocityofP waves in Sial is approximately:
(A) 6.5 Km/sec (B) 3.36 Km/sec (C) 3.74 Kmlsec (D) 5.57 Km/sec

5. A lacustrine environment affected by marine conditions is called:
(A) Deltaic (B) Paludal (C) Paralic (D) Limnic

6. The visible light ranges in wave length from:
(A) 0.38 to 0.76 Jlm (B) 0.43 to 0.65 Jlm (C) 0.40 to 0.7 Jlm (D) 0.41 to 0.72 Jlm

7. Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is not used in aerial thermography?
(A) 3.5 to 5.5 Jlm (B) 5.5 to 8.0 Jlm (C) 8.0 to 10.0 Jlm (D) 10 to 14 Jlm
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8. Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is useful in the discrimination of geological
structures?
(A) 0.6 to 0.7 11m (B) 0.7 to 0.8 11m (C) 0.5 to 0.6 11m (D) 0.8 to 1.111m

9. Which portion of the electromagnetic portion is useful in land use studies?
A) 0.7 to 0.8 11m (B) 0.8 to 1.1 11m (C) 0.6 to 0.7 11m (D) 0.5 to 0.6 11m

10. Which band of Thematic Mapper is known as Thermal Band?
(A) 4th (B) 5th C) 6th (D) 7th

11. The Push broom Scanner was first introduced in:
(A) LANDSAT (B) SPOT (C) IRS D) JERS

12. Which one of the following satellites was launched by India for ocean application alone?
(A) IRS P3 (B) IRS P4 (C) IRS P5 (D) IRS P6

13. The spatial resolution of LISS-III sensor is :
(A) 60m (B) 120 m (C) 23.5 m (D) 70.5 m

14. The content of most geographic information system is :
(A) Location (B) Attribute (C) Time (D) All the above

15. Which of the following is not a software component?
(A) Plotter (B) Data storage (C) Data analysis (D) Database management

16. The rarest of all the garnets is
(A) Pyrope (B) Uvarovite (C) Grossularite (D) Almandine

17. Which is the most common mica?
(A) Zinnwaldite (B) Phlogopite (C) Biotite (D) Muscovite

18. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(A) Calcite-Icelandspar (B) Gypsum-Satinspar
(C) Hypersthene-Schillerspar (D) Dolomite-Dogtoothspar

19. Which element is enriched in Achroite?
(A) Potassium (B) Calcium (C) Titanium (D) Thorium

20. Blue John is a variety of:
(A) Beryl (B) Apatite (C) Fluorite (D) Azurite

21. The pink variety of tourmaline is known as:
(A) Schorl (B) Achroite (C) Rubellite (D) Indicolite

22. Tourmaline shows polarization due to:
(A) Dispersion (B) Refraction (C) Reflection (D) Absorption

23. Which of the following is used to measure retardation?
(A) Iris .diaphragm (B)Berek compensator (C) Condenser (D) Bertrand lens

24. Kyanite is distinguished from Sillimanite and Andalusite by it's:
(A) Strong pleochroism (B) Strong birefringence (C) Large optic axial angle
(D) Oblique extinction

25. An isotropic mineral has:
(A) Infinite optic axes (B) Two optic axes (C) No optic axes. (D) One optic axis

26. Q-Joints are :
(A) 90° to flow line (B) 45° to flow line (C) Parallel to flow line (D) Flat-lying

27. The angle which the fault plane makes with the vertical plane is referred to as
(A) Dip (B) Hade (C) Heave (D) Throw

28. Pick the odd one out:
(A) Supratenuous fold (B) Diapiric fold (C) Knee fold (D) Box fold

29. Line connecting equal vertical thickness is called as :
(A) Isochores (B) Isopachs (C) Isohyets (D) Isovels

30. Joints Perpendicular to the axis of folds are designated as :
(A) Extension joints (B) Release joints (C) Shear joints (D) Tension joints

31. A brittle substance undergoes rupture when stress is approximately:
(A) 30,000 lbs/sq.in (B) 20,000 lbslsq.in (C) 10,000 lbslsq.in
(D) 15,000 lbslsq.in

32. Lithostatic pressure is equal to the weight of :
(A) Underlying rocks (B) Overlying rocks
(C) Surrounding rocks (D) Lateral supporting rocks

33. Anoverturned fold in which two limbs dip towards each other is named as :
(A) Syncline (B) Inclined isoclinal fold
(C) Anticlinal fan fold (D) Synclinal fan fold

34. The difference between a Reclined and a Recumbent fold is that, in the former:
(A) Axial plane is horizontal (B) Fold axis is horizontal
(C) Both limbs dip in the same direction (D) Plunging fold axis

35. Linear structures developed by the compression of competent beds are termed as :
(A) Lineations (B) Foliations (C) Mullions (D) Drag folds

36. The most common type of coiling in Cephalopoda is :
(A) Discoidal (B) Plane spiral (C) Helicoid spiral (D) Sinistral

37. The earliest fossil evidence of elephant was reported from:
(A) North America (B) South Mrica (C) Egypt (D) India
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38. Identify the coral which is phacelloid :
(A) Montlivaltia (B) Favosites (C) Lithostrotion (D) Isastraea

39. Which one is an extinct coral? )
(A) Favosites (B) Dendrophyllia (c) Thecosmilia (D) Calceola

40. A typical graptolite of Tremadocian age:
(A) Dictyonema (B) Rastrites (C) Tetragraptus (D) Dimorphograptus

41. In Vindhyan supergroup, well-preserved Stromatolites are found in:
(A) Bhander Limestone (B) Suket Shales
(C) Fawn Limestone (D) Kajrahat Limestone)

42. The most commonrocks ofVindhyan Supergroup are:
(A) Gneisses (B) Shales (C) Limestones (D) Sandstones

43. Which of the following formation is the richest in fossils?
(A) Chinji (B) Nagri (C) Pinjor (D) DhokPathan

44. The first Pleistocene glacial advance has been termed as :
(A) Gunz (B) Wurm (C) Mindel (D) Riss

45. The Cenomanian marine transgression was during:
(A) Early tertiary (B) Cretaceous (C) Jurassic (D) Triassic

46. Syenites in which alkali feldspar become approximately equal in amount to plagioclase are called:
(A) Shonkinites (B) Pulaskites (C) Nordmarkites (D) Monzonites

47. With increasing ferromagnesian minerals, gabbros grade into :
(A) Anorthosites (B) Olivine monzonites (C) Picrites (D) Alkali gabbros

48. Perthite is a mineral with following composition:
(A) Albite in Orthoclase (B) Microcline in Orthoclase
(C) Orthoclase in Albite (D) Orthoclase in Microcline

49. Primary occurrence of diamonds is not reported from which of the following?
(A) Kimberlite (B) Eclogite (C) Lamproite (D) Peridotite

50. Plutonic counterpart of Aplite is :
(A) Pegmatite (B) Granite (C) Quartzite (D) Rhyolite

51. Among the following rock types, which one becomes plastic when wet?
(A) Shale (B) Mudstone (C) Siltstone (D) Claystone

52. Which type of Mudstone is called Marl? Kerala, India
(A) Calcareous (B) Siliceous (C) Ferruginous (D) Phosphatic

53. Which of the following is not a metamorphic mineral?
(A) Glaucophane (B) Glauconite (C) Sillimanite (D) Lawsonite

54. The metamorphic conditions existing in near surface region in subduction zones:
(A) Blueschist facies (B) Greenschist facies (C) Sanidinite facies
(D) Eclogite facies

55. The Garnet found in Eclogite is :
(A) Almandine (B) Spessartite (C) Grossularite (D) Pyrope

56. Who amon~ the following, is considered as the 'Father of Economic Geology'?
(A) James Hutton (B) Georgius Agricola (C) Nicolaus Steno (D) Descartes

57. Placer gold deposits are mostly:
(A) Colluvial (B) Illuvial (c) Alluvial (D) Eluvial

58. Of the following evaporate minerals, which one crystallizes last?
(A) Anhydrite (B) Dolomite (C) Halite (D) Sylvite
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59. The last four minerals in Van Kobell's scale are arranged in the order:
(A) Orthoclase, Actinolite, Bronzite, Almandine (B) Almandine, Actinolite, Orthoclase, Bronzite (C) Almandine, Orthoclase, Actinolite, Bronzite
(D) Actinolite, Bronzite, Almandine, Orthoclase

60. Skarn deposits are generally characterized by the mineral:
(A) Axinite (B) Actinolite (C) Calcite (D) Aragonite

61. Name the mineral deposits associated with Sakoli series:
(A) Iron (B) Lead and Zinc (C) Diamonds (D) Manganese

62. Gold deposits of India are associated with:
(A) Early Precambrian (B) Late Precambrian (C) Early Palaeozoic
(D) Late Palaeozoic

63. The placer deposits of Monazite and Ilmenite found in Kerala are of :
(A) Alluvial placer (B) Colluvial placer (C) lliuvial placer
(D) None of the above

64. Which of the following is not a structural trap for oil?
(A) Unconformity (B) Fault (C) Anticline (D) Syncline

65. The manganese mineral having highest metal content is :
(A) PyrOlusite (B) Psilomelane (C) Hausmannite (D) Manganite

66. The chromite deposits of Sitampundi Complex are found associated with:
(A) Syenites (B) Anorthosites (C) Norites (D) Peridotites

67. DetailJd survey for oil and gas is generally done by :
(A) Seismic reflection (B) Magnetic methods (C) Gravimetric (D) Seismic refraction

68. The difference between the observed and predicted gravity values after applying all the corrections is described as :
(A) Bouguer correction (B) Bouguer anomaly (C) Free air correction (D) Free air anomaly

69. 'Ocimum homblei' is a universal indicator plant for:
(A) U (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Cu

70. Of the given minerals, which one is prospected by ultraviolet light?
(A) Monazite (B) Ilmenite (C) Scheelite (D) Uraninite

71. An ore mineral of Chromium which contains a tenor of 30% chromic oxide is :
(A) Very high grade ore (B) Low grade ore (C) Average grade ore (D) High grade ore

72. Which of the following mineral has highest metal percentage?
(A) Sphalerite (B) Smithosonite (C) Hemimorphite (D) Zincite
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73. The approximate percentage Titanium metal found in Ilmenite is :
(A) 32% (B) 42% (C) 40% (D) 25%

74. The simple apparatus for measuring the angle of the borehole is :
(A) Clinometer compass (B) Brunton compass (C) Inclinometer (D) Planimeter

75. According to the Geological Survey of India, the permissible percentage of error for developed reservjS has been given from :
(A) 0 to 10% (B) 10 to 20% (C) 15 to 20% (D) 20 to 30%

76. In general, water pollution is caused by :
(A) Decay of dead aquatic organisms (B) Rain (C) Insecticides
(D) Industrial effluents

77. In big cities, the major air pollutants are :
(A) CO2 (B) H2S (C) CO and oxides of S (D) Hydrocarbons and hot air

78. The Ozone layer lies between:
(A) 15 to 60 KIns (B) 10 to 80 Kms (C) 50 to 100 Kms (D) 10 to 100 Kms

79. The atmospheric ultraviolet radiations are absorbed. in the zone called:
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Thermosphere

80. In water pollution studies, especially suspended solids, which band of satellite data is made use of:
(A) 0.6 to 0.7 pm (B) 0.5 to 0.6 pm ~ (C) 0.8 to 1.1 pm (D) 0.7 to 0.8 pm

81. Which of the following is the most feebly magnetic mineral?
(A) Quartz (B) Rutile (C) Magnesite (D) Galena

82. 'Black potatoes' are enriched in :
(A) Co and Ni (B) Cu and Co (C) Ni and Cu (D) Fe and Mn

83. Which mine gas is known as White damp?
(A) CH4 (B) CO (C) CO2 (D) H2S

84. Mine explosions are mainly due to :
(A) Marsh gas (B) White damp (C) Black damp (D) Stink damp

85. The ore reserves based on limited number of samples are described as :
(A) Proved reserves (B) Possible reserves (C) Probable reserves (D) None of the above

86. The 'Brazilian test' is used to determine:
(A) Modulus of elasticity (B) Crushing strength (C) Compressive strength (D) Tensile strength

87. The strength of.stratified rocks is always greater when the stresses are acting:
(A) Parallel to the strike (B) Perpendicular to the strike
(C) Normal to the bedding (D) Parallel to the bedding

88. The most important factor in the geological investigation in reservoir sites is
(A) Lithology (B) Topography (C) Water table (D) Elevation
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89. Name the rock type which has least Compressive strength?
(A) Limestone (B) Granite (C) Gneiss (D) Marble

90. While assessing the engineering properties of rocks, which of the following density is taken into account:
(A) True density (B) Bulk density (C) Saturated density (D) Dry density

91. The Caliper logging technique is employed to measure:
(A) Resistivity (B) Temperature (C) Conductivity (D) Well diameter

92. In drinking water the total dissolved solids should not exceed:
(A) 500 mg/l (B) 125 mg/l (C) 250 mg/l (D) 1000 mg/l

93. Groundwater for agricultural use, the permissible ~purity limit is :
(A) 10000 ppm (B) 7000 ppm (C) 5000 ppm (D) 9000 ppm

94. For drilling large diameter bore wells which method is advisable?
(A) Diamond drilling (B) Cable Tool drilling (C) Calyx drilling (D) Rotary drilling

95. The quantity of water transmitted through 1 sq.cm area in one second under a standard hydraulic gradient is the measure of the:
(A) Porosity (C) Specific yield (B) Permeability (D) Storativity

96. Residence time of groundwater can be determined by using the isotope of :
(A) Tritium (B) Sulphur (C) Oxygen (D) Helium

97. Which of the following materials has more porosity?
(A) Loess (B) Peat (C) Clay (D) Limestone

98. The law which explains the flow of ground water in porous media is :
(A) Reynold's law (B) Hilt's law (C) Darcy's law (D) Walther'slaw

99. Name)he commonly used and effective groundwater tracer:
(A) Sodium fluorescein (B) Phenolphthalein (C) Bromine (D) Chlorine

100. The most commonly practised and inexpensive groundwater recharging method is :
(A) Recharge well method (B) Water spreading (C) Pit method (D) Irrigation method

ANSWER KEY

1) C 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) C
11) D 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) C
21) C 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A
31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) A
41) C 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) B
51) D 52) A 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) C 58) D 59) B 60) A
61) D 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) C 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) C
71) B 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) A 76) D 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) B
81) D 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) C 88) C 89) A 90) B
91) D 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) C 99) A 100) B


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